Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 06:10
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How do flat Earthers explain the existence of other spherical planets?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
At what stage in your life did you realize, "No, I can't do this any more" and walk out? Why?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Market's Slide Broadens in Afternoon Trading - Barron's
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.